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Abe R's avatar

I’m confused how we are using the forgetful functor to derive the product in the category of vector spaces. How do we know if P is a product of V and W in the category of vector spaces that F(P) is a Cartesian product of V and W in the category of sets where F is the forgetful functor?

This seems to be what the argument relied on, and furthermore we know that products are not unique (may be unique up to isomorphism but they are not literally unique) so if P is a product of vector spaces that is not literally a set theoretic Cartesian product of V and W then when we apply the forgetful functor F we won’t get a Cartesian product and I’m not sure how the argument then works.

Loved the post, just something I was confused by.

Abe R's avatar

Small correction: you wrote ϕ∘f^-1: B—>D but I believe you meant Φ∘f^-1: B—>D instead.

ϕ∘f^-1 is actually a morphism from B to A.

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